- Apr 1, 2019
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I was thinking about this earlier, over a mouthful of brussels sprouts (link relevant). Aside from cultural familiarity, how much does one's ethnicity play a part in shaping what you like and dislike in a perfume?
The reference to food is an obvious one to make. The trade of herbs and spices away from where they are cultivated has been taking place for thousands of years. Yet different regions - with different people, of course - use these ingredients in different proportions and for different purposes. Of course, it is easy to fall back on a social, historical, and even economic argument - people cooked with what was available, affordable, and already common. Yet it's undeniable that difference has occurred, to the point we have recognisable cuisines that can be categorised by continent, country, and region. Even without an understanding of the role in genetics, and how that can be used to explain differences in taste, we can see that groups of people share similar tastes within that group relative to other groups. There is a meme about British food being dull despite the Empire, which is mostly fallacious and ignores both religious temperance and genuine austerity for most people in the C19th and early C20th. Yet Britain is in fact a great example for this, as having conquered large parts of the world for several centuries, they had access to near enough every ingredient imaginable at the time. With that access, the local cuisine - and local ingredients - were often used to create dishes that were more appealing to the British palate. The Brit abroad did not naturalise his tastebuds to the local cuisine as much as he fused what was available to his existing sensibilies. A great example of this is curry; the creamy and rich gravies that are used in dishes that are notorious to large parts of the western world are a creation of the British Raj (before being transplanted back to Britain itself; tikka masala being the very definition of 'fusion' food, where curry was mixed with tomato soup). Even ignoring matters of imperialism, all spice is a common ingredient in British cooking, used in both sweet and savoury dishes: it is known as the 'English herb' in Polish. I'm sure there are many more examples for different places and peoples, and I would be interested in reading them - so please don't shy away from sharing them.
The point is, despite the cultural mixing and homogenising that has taken place in recent decades, we still maintain our preferences, diversity, and distinctions - for all sorts of reasons, including individuality. My question is: what role does nationality/ethnicity, if any, play in this when it comes to fragrance? Of course I am not demanding expert responses - thoughts, questions, and estimations are all welcome.
I suppose there is also a way to break the question down further, in to both wearer/buyer of the perfume, and the perfumer/house creating the perfume.
- How much does nationality impact the taste of the perfumer?
- How much does nationality impact the taste of the wearer?
For reference, consider the example of herbs and spices by nationality:
The reference to food is an obvious one to make. The trade of herbs and spices away from where they are cultivated has been taking place for thousands of years. Yet different regions - with different people, of course - use these ingredients in different proportions and for different purposes. Of course, it is easy to fall back on a social, historical, and even economic argument - people cooked with what was available, affordable, and already common. Yet it's undeniable that difference has occurred, to the point we have recognisable cuisines that can be categorised by continent, country, and region. Even without an understanding of the role in genetics, and how that can be used to explain differences in taste, we can see that groups of people share similar tastes within that group relative to other groups. There is a meme about British food being dull despite the Empire, which is mostly fallacious and ignores both religious temperance and genuine austerity for most people in the C19th and early C20th. Yet Britain is in fact a great example for this, as having conquered large parts of the world for several centuries, they had access to near enough every ingredient imaginable at the time. With that access, the local cuisine - and local ingredients - were often used to create dishes that were more appealing to the British palate. The Brit abroad did not naturalise his tastebuds to the local cuisine as much as he fused what was available to his existing sensibilies. A great example of this is curry; the creamy and rich gravies that are used in dishes that are notorious to large parts of the western world are a creation of the British Raj (before being transplanted back to Britain itself; tikka masala being the very definition of 'fusion' food, where curry was mixed with tomato soup). Even ignoring matters of imperialism, all spice is a common ingredient in British cooking, used in both sweet and savoury dishes: it is known as the 'English herb' in Polish. I'm sure there are many more examples for different places and peoples, and I would be interested in reading them - so please don't shy away from sharing them.
The point is, despite the cultural mixing and homogenising that has taken place in recent decades, we still maintain our preferences, diversity, and distinctions - for all sorts of reasons, including individuality. My question is: what role does nationality/ethnicity, if any, play in this when it comes to fragrance? Of course I am not demanding expert responses - thoughts, questions, and estimations are all welcome.
I suppose there is also a way to break the question down further, in to both wearer/buyer of the perfume, and the perfumer/house creating the perfume.
- How much does nationality impact the taste of the perfumer?
- How much does nationality impact the taste of the wearer?
For reference, consider the example of herbs and spices by nationality:

